Mentioned as an easy exercise in 'Topology', James R. Munkres, 2e, Pearson[page No:25]
If A is an ordered set has the Least upper bound property iff it has the greatest
lower bound property.
An ordered set A is said to have the least upper bound property if every nonempty subset A0 of A that is bounded above has least upper bound. A satisfies this property. Suppose B0 is an arbitrary set having lower bound. We need to prove it has the greatest lower bound. Suppose L⊂A is the set of all lower bounds of the set B0. ∃b0∈B0,∀x∈L,x≤b0.
So, L is bounded above. Hence, It has least upper bound. Let b be the least upper bound of L. ∀x∈L,x≤b.
Answer
The idea is correct, but could be written down more clearly:
Let A be an ordered set that satisfies the lub property.
Then A satisfies the glb property:
Let B be a non-empty subset of A that is bounded below, define
L(B)={x∈A:∀b∈B:x≤b}
Then for any fixed b0∈B (B is non-empty), and any l∈L(B) we have l≤b0. But this says that L(B) is bounded above. So the lub property says that l0=lub(L(B)) exists. Claim: l0=glb(B).
For this we need to show two things: l0 is a lower bound for B and there is no greater lower bound for B.
So let b∈B. Then, as before, b as before is an upper bound for L(B) by the definition of L(B), and as l0 is the least upper bound for L(B) we have l0≤b. As b was arbitary, l0 is a lower bound for B.
Now suppose m is any lower bound for B. Then again by definition, m∈L(B).
As l0 is the least upper bound for L(B), it is an upperbound for L(B) so m≤l0. So all lower bounds for B are below l0.
Together this says that l0=glb(B) and so A satisfies the glb-property.
The reverse is indeed similar: lub(B)=glb(U(B)), where U(B) is the set of upperbounds for B.
No comments:
Post a Comment