Saturday, 24 May 2014

Lebesgue outer measure with open balls

I'm not sure if this has been asked before; if so please redirect me to the appropriate question.



The Lebesgue outer measure of ARn is defined as μ(A)=inf where the infimum is taken over open boxes R_i.



Now suppose we define a new measure in this exact same manner, except we take the infimum over open balls, defining their volume using the usual formula for the volume of an n-sphere. Why is this equivalent to the above definition?



It seems somewhat related to the Vitali covering lemma.

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