I'm not sure if this has been asked before; if so please redirect me to the appropriate question.
The Lebesgue outer measure of A⊆Rn is defined as μ∗(A)=inf where the infimum is taken over open boxes R_i.
Now suppose we define a new measure in this exact same manner, except we take the infimum over open balls, defining their volume using the usual formula for the volume of an n-sphere. Why is this equivalent to the above definition?
It seems somewhat related to the Vitali covering lemma.
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