Monday, 19 May 2014

fibonacci numbers - Proof with mathematical induction: Fm+n+1=Fm+1Fn+1+FmFnquadtextform,ngeqslant0

Today when I was proving the identity with Fibonacci sequence, namely: Fm+n+1=Fm+1Fn+1+FmFnfor m,n
I have used mathematical induction. But we know that if we have some property which depends on natural numbers, namely P(n) and we have needed properties on P(n) we can prove that P(n) holds for any n\in \mathbb{N} -- this is the principle of math induction.




However in that post I have applied mathematical induction on n and proved that it holds for any n\in \mathbb{N}\cup \{0\} (the case n=0 also true).



However, we should prove that above identity is true for any m,n\geqslant 0, but in my proof i have done it only for natural parameter n. What about m?



Can anyone explain this subtle moment, please?

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