Sunday, 15 February 2015

calculus - Prove or disprove that the series is converge

I need to prove or disprove the following statement -



If an>=0,p>1 , and i=1an converge , then i=1apn converge



Well , It looks like a wrong statement but I couldn't think about familiar counterexample.
I would like to get a hint.



Thanks!

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