I need to prove or disprove the following statement -
If an>=0,p>1 , and ∑∞i=1an converge , then ∑∞i=1apn converge
Well , It looks like a wrong statement but I couldn't think about familiar counterexample.
I would like to get a hint.
Thanks!
How to find lim without lhopital rule? I know when I use lhopital I easy get $$ \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}...
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