I need to prove or disprove the following statement -
If $a_{n} >= 0 , p > 1$ , and $\sum_{i=1}^\infty{a_{n}}$ converge , then $\sum_{i=1}^\infty{a_{n}^p}$ converge
Well , It looks like a wrong statement but I couldn't think about familiar counterexample.
I would like to get a hint.
Thanks!
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