Prove: When m>1 and n>1 and gcd(m,n)>1. Then ϕ(mn)≠ϕ(m)ϕ(n).
Proof
Let m,n∈Z s.t. gcd(m,n)>1. Consider the congruences:
x≡bmodm
x≡cmodn
This is where I am stuck. If i were to prove the opposite of this statement I would appeal to the chinese remainder theorem and state that distinct solutions have a correspondence to distinct pairs. So I think is in the same, vein. We do not have a distinct correspondence, so somehow we will end up with: ϕ(mn)≠ϕ(m)ϕ(n)
Answer
Let us use an inductive argument. Suppose that we have N=mn. If N is composed of a single prime, say N=pk partitioned into m=pi and n=pj
ϕ(N)=pk(1−1p)>ϕ(m)ϕ(n)=pk(1−1p)2
The base case holds. Now suppose the inequality holds for all N composed of at most k primes. Consider N=pa11⋯pak+1k+1
Suppose without loss of generality that N is partitioned into m and n where p1 is shared.
m=pb11⋅m′
n=pc11⋅n′
where a1=b1+c1. Then we have
ϕ(N)=ϕ(pa11m′n′)=ϕ(pa11)ϕ(m′n′)
From the inductive hypothesis, m′ and n′ are composed of k or less primes, therefore
ϕ(m′n′)>ϕ(m′)ϕ(n′)
and we get
ϕ(pa11)ϕ(m′n′)>[ϕ(pb11)ϕ(m′)][ϕ(pc11)ϕ(n′)]=ϕ(m)ϕ(n)
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