I am having a little trouble with this question.
Prove that there does not exist a bijective map from R2→R3 where f and f−1 are both differentiable.
Thanks for any help.
Answer
I'd be pretty surprised if this question wasn't already answered somewhere on this site... but here's a sketch.
Suppose f:R2→R3 is bijective with both f and f−1 differentiable. In particular, f and f−1 are continuous i.e. f is a homeomorphism. So the question is: "why is R2 not homeomorphic to R3?" The simplest approach is probably to note that R2 minus a point is not simply connected, but R3 minus a point is simply connected. Since the property
there exists a point x∈X such that X∖{x} is not-simply connected
is invariant under homeomorphism, we are done.
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