Thursday, 19 February 2015

real analysis - Existence of a Bijective Map



I am having a little trouble with this question.



Prove that there does not exist a bijective map from R2R3 where f and f1 are both differentiable.



Thanks for any help.


Answer



I'd be pretty surprised if this question wasn't already answered somewhere on this site... but here's a sketch.




Suppose f:R2R3 is bijective with both f and f1 differentiable. In particular, f and f1 are continuous i.e. f is a homeomorphism. So the question is: "why is R2 not homeomorphic to R3?" The simplest approach is probably to note that R2 minus a point is not simply connected, but R3 minus a point is simply connected. Since the property




there exists a point xX such that X{x} is not-simply connected




is invariant under homeomorphism, we are done.


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