Wednesday, 29 July 2015

probability - Expected value of a continuous random variable (understanding of the proof)



I need a little help to understand the steps of this proof. (I'm currently studying double integrals) but also i don't understand the first equalities. Thank you in advance.



Let X be an absolutely continous variable with density function fx. Suppose that g is a nonnegative function then.
E(g(X))=0P(g(X))>y)dy0P(g(X)y)dy
=0P(g(X))>y)dy=0(Bfx(x)dx)dy

where B:= {x:g(x)>y}. Therefore.
E(g(X))=0g0(x)fxdydx=0g(x)fx(x)dx.


Answer



The first equality can be skipped if you just use the tail sum formula for nonnegative random variables: E[Y]=0P(Y>y)dy if Y is continuous and nonnegative. Applying this to Y=g(X) immediately yields E[g(X)]=0P(g(X))>y)dy.



[The first equality is a generalization, and can be proven by writing Y=Y1Y0(Y)1Y<0 and applying the tail sum probability to each term both of which are nonnegative.]






The next part is simply the definition of B. P(g(X)>y)=BfX(x)dx







Finally, switch the order of the two integrals.
I think you forgot to mention that X is also nonnegative?
The region you are integrating over is {y0}{x0:g(x)>y}, which can be rewritten as {x0}{y:0y<g(x)}.



0BfX(x)dxdy=0g(x)0fX(x)dydx.


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