A quick question. Is $$\textrm{ot}(\bigcup\limits_{\gamma <\lambda}\alpha_{\gamma})=\bigcup\limits_{\gamma <\lambda}\textrm{ot}(\alpha_{\gamma})?$$
where $\textrm{ot}$ stands for the order type (and $\lambda$ can be limit ordinal or not).
It seems like a nice property which can be very much false, but I don't know neither how to prove it nor can I find a counterexample.
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