Question: Let (an) and (bn) be two nondecreasing sequences with the property that, for each positive integer n, there are integers p and q such that an≤bp and bn≤aq.
Show that (an) and (bn) either both converge or both diverge to ∞ and that, moreover, if they both converge they have the same limit.
Given: (an) and (bn) are non-decreasing, and an≤bp and bn≤aq
My proof is like:
Suppose (an) is convergent, then for every ϵ greater than 0, we have |an - L| < ε , then the limit for (a_n) is L.
we know that a_n ≤ bp and bn ≤ aq,
so a_n - b_p ≤ 0 and b_n-a_q ≤ 0
Let |a_n-b_p|= ε/2 |b_p-a_m| = ε /2
|a_n - a_m| = |a_n - b_p + b_p -a_m| ≤ |a_n-b_p|+|b_p-a_m| < ε
So an is a cauchy sequence
Then I want to prove bn is a Cauchy sequence because there is a theorem says that the sequence converges if and only if the sequence is cauchy.
Let ε > 0 and let |b_n-a_q|> ε/2 & |a_q-b-m| > ε/2
|b_n - b_m| = |b_n-a_q + a_q-b_m| ≤ |b_n-a_q|+|a_q-b_m| ≤ ε
So that (b_n) is a Cauchy sequence, and (b_n) converges. Since it converges, it has a limit, and according to the definition of limit, we have |b_n - L| < ε
So the limit of (b_n) is also L.
I conclude that an and bn both converge and both of them converge to the same limit.
I don't konw if it is helpful to use Cauchy to prove this question, I talk to the TA of this course and he suggests me to use Cauchy to solve. Maybe I misunderstand his hint, any help will be super appreciated:)
Thanks a lot!
Joy
Answer
The exercise is much easier if you use:
Proposition: Let \{a_n\} be an nondecreasing sequence. Then \{a_n\} is convergent if and only if \{a_n\} is bounded. If \{a_n\} is bounded, then \lim a_n =\sup a_n.
Using this proposition, let \{a_n\} be convergent. For each b_n, there is a_q (q might depend on n) so that b_n \le a_q. Thus
b_n \le a_q \le \sup_{n\in \mathbb N} a_n = \lim_{n\to \infty} a_n.
Thus \{b_n\} is bounded and by the proposition, it is convergent and
\lim_{n\to \infty} b_n = \sup_{n\to \infty} b_n \le \lim_{n\to \infty} a_n.
Using the same argument, swtiching the role of a_n, b_n, we have also
\lim_{n\to \infty} a_n \le \lim_{n\to \infty} b_n.
Thus the limit are the same.
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