As a follow-up to this question, I noticed that the proof used the fact that p and q were "even". Clearly, when replacing factors of 2 with factors of 3 everything does not simply come down to being "even" or "odd", so how could I go about proving that √3 is irrational?
Answer
It's very simple, actually.
Assume that √3 = pq, with p,q coprime integers.
Then, p=√3q and p2=3q2. If 3∣p2, then 3∣p. So actually, 9∣p2. Then, by similar logic, 3∣q2, meaning 3∣q. Since 3 divides both p and q, the two numbers are not coprime. This is a contradiction, since we assumed that they were coprime. Therefore, √3 cannot be written as a ratio of coprime integers and must be irrational.
NOTE: The word "even" in the original proof was just a substitution for "divisible by 2". This same idea of divisibility was used in this proof to show that p and q were divisible by 3. It really is the same idea. There just isn't a nice concise word like "even" that was used to describe a multiple of 3 in this proof.
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