Thursday, 17 December 2015

Use stirlings approximation to prove inequality.

I have come across this statement in a text on finite elements. I can give you the reference if that will be useful. The text mentions that the inequality follows from Stirling's formula. I can't prove it to myself but I think it is true from checking values with Mathematica.



Let p,kN with kp. Then we have



(pk)!(p+k)!(θp)2k,θ=(e2)k/p.



Does anyone have an idea of how to get this inequality from Stirling's approximation?




This is my attempt at a solution. To build intuition, let's look at the case k=p we have



(pk)!(p+k)!=1(2p)!12πexp(2p)(2p)2p+1/2=12π(e2)2p121p2p1p1/212π(e2)2p121p2p=12π12(θp)2k(θp)2k



And this is what we wanted to show.



Now let's look at the case k=p1, then we get



(pk)!(p+k)!=1(2p1)!12πexp(2p1)(2p1)2p1/2=12πexp(2p1)22p1/21(p1/2)2p1/2=12π12(e2)2p11(p1/2)2p1/212π(e2)2p11(p1/2)2p1??



This is where I am stuck. For the k=p1 case, I can multiply and divide by (e2)32/p to get something of the correct form, but then it seems I would have to to prove that for all p




(e2)32/p1(p1/2)2p11.

This seems like a dead end to me. And this is still just a special case of the general result. Any ideas?

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