I have come across this statement in a text on finite elements. I can give you the reference if that will be useful. The text mentions that the inequality follows from Stirling's formula. I can't prove it to myself but I think it is true from checking values with Mathematica.
Let p,k∈N with k≤p. Then we have
(p−k)!(p+k)!≤(θp)2k,θ=(e2)k/p.
Does anyone have an idea of how to get this inequality from Stirling's approximation?
This is my attempt at a solution. To build intuition, let's look at the case k=p we have
(p−k)!(p+k)!=1(2p)!≤1√2πexp(2p)(2p)2p+1/2=1√2π(e2)2p1√21p2p1p1/2≤1√2π(e2)2p1√21p2p=1√2π1√2(θp)2k≤(θp)2k
And this is what we wanted to show.
Now let's look at the case k=p−1, then we get
(p−k)!(p+k)!=1(2p−1)!≤1√2πexp(2p−1)(2p−1)2p−1/2=1√2πexp(2p−1)22p−1/21(p−1/2)2p−1/2=1√2π1√2(e2)2p−11(p−1/2)2p−1/2≤12√π(e2)2p−11(p−1/2)2p−1≤??
This is where I am stuck. For the k=p−1 case, I can multiply and divide by (e2)3−2/p to get something of the correct form, but then it seems I would have to to prove that for all p
(e2)3−2/p1(p−1/2)2p−1≤1.
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