I was going through a textbook of mine and I noticed that in the proof of derivative of
y=sin−1,
i.e. proof that dydxsin−1(x)=1√1−x2
there's a point where they say 1cosy=1√1−x2
and I'm not sure how this makes sense or works out. I've looked for proofs, tried implicit differentiation, and tried graphing it, but couldn't find anything. Can someone please explain?
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