I came across the following inequality and I would like to know if it is true
(xxy−y)1y−x(x−y)2≤x+y,
which is the same as proving
e−xlogx−ylogyx−y(x−y)2≤x+y.
When I do the simulations it seems it really holds, for any x,y≥0 , (x≠y).
I tried to use geometric-arithmetic mean inequality, i.e.,
(xxy−y)1y−x=((1x)−x(1y)y)1y−x≤−x1x+y1yy−x=0≤x+y,
but obviously this is a wrong approach ("weights" −x, −y, can not be negative).
Do you have any idea how to prove it? Thanks.
Answer
Note that your formula show that your inequality is equivalent to
2log|x−y|≤log(x+y)+xlogx−ylogyx−y
Wlog, we may suppose that x>y>0, put x=y+u.
We have
xlogx=(y+u)log(y+u)=ylogy+ylog(1+u/y)+ulogu+ulog(1+y/u)
and
log(x+y)=log(2y+u)=logu+log(1+2y/u)
Hence we have to show:
2logu≤logu+log(1+2y/u)+(y/u)log(1+u/y)+logu+log(1+y/u)
or
0≤log(1+2y/u)+(y/u)log(1+u/y)+log(1+y/u)
and this is clear.
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