Use the Theorem 12+22+....+n2=n(n+1)(2n+1)6 to prove that if p is any prime number with p≥5, then the sum of squares of any p consecutive integers is divisible by p.
I'm confused with how to go about doing this, I have the solution to the problem, but I'm unsure what exactly is happening.
In the first part of the solution it says:
for n=1 and p≥5,
12+22+...(1+p−1)=p(p+1)(2p+1)6
I understand how we got the right side of the equation, but I'm unsure about the left side. How do we get 1+p−1 as the last term?
From here can anyone explain the rest of the proof?
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