Use the Theorem $$1^2+2^2+....+n^2 = \frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}$$ to prove that if $p$ is any prime number with $p \geq 5$, then the sum of squares of any $p$ consecutive integers is divisible by $p$.
I'm confused with how to go about doing this, I have the solution to the problem, but I'm unsure what exactly is happening.
In the first part of the solution it says:
for $n=1$ and $p \geq 5$,
$$1^2+2^2+...(1+p-1) = \frac{p(p+1)(2p+1)}{6}$$
I understand how we got the right side of the equation, but I'm unsure about the left side. How do we get $1+p-1$ as the last term?
From here can anyone explain the rest of the proof?
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