Friday 21 July 2017

proof writing - Prove gcd and common divisor



I have this math problem.





Let $a, b, m$ be any positive integers with $\gcd(a,m)=d$ and
$\gcd(b,m)=1$.



i) Show that if $k$ is a common divisor to $ab$ and $m$, then $k$
divides $d$.



ii) Use the result in part i) to conclude that $\gcd(ab, m)=d$.





I'm not 100% sure about how to start this. Can I conclude that if $k\mid ab$, then $k\mid a$? If I can do that, then I can say since $k\mid a$ and $k\mid m$, $k\mid d$.



Thanks


Answer



Yes, you can make that conclusion. The best way to check the validity of a claim like that is writing down a more detailed proof like below:



Let $k$ be a common divisor to $ab$ and $m$. Since $k|m$ and $(b,m) = 1$, $(b,k) = 1$. Thus $k|ab$ and $(b,k) = 1$ implies $k |a$, and thus also $k|d$.



For part (ii), $k|d$ implies $k \leq d$. Since $k|m$ and $k|ab$, $gcd(ab,m) \leq d$. But since $d |ab$ and $d|m$, we know $gcd(ab,m) \geq d$. Thus $gcd(ab, m) = d$.



No comments:

Post a Comment

real analysis - How to find $lim_{hrightarrow 0}frac{sin(ha)}{h}$

How to find $\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin(ha)}{h}$ without lhopital rule? I know when I use lhopital I easy get $$ \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}...