I have this math problem.
Let a,b,m be any positive integers with gcd and
\gcd(b,m)=1.
i) Show that if k is a common divisor to ab and m, then k
divides d.
ii) Use the result in part i) to conclude that \gcd(ab, m)=d.
I'm not 100% sure about how to start this. Can I conclude that if k\mid ab, then k\mid a? If I can do that, then I can say since k\mid a and k\mid m, k\mid d.
Thanks
Answer
Yes, you can make that conclusion. The best way to check the validity of a claim like that is writing down a more detailed proof like below:
Let k be a common divisor to ab and m. Since k|m and (b,m) = 1, (b,k) = 1. Thus k|ab and (b,k) = 1 implies k |a, and thus also k|d.
For part (ii), k|d implies k \leq d. Since k|m and k|ab, gcd(ab,m) \leq d. But since d |ab and d|m, we know gcd(ab,m) \geq d. Thus gcd(ab, m) = d.
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