For the integral ∫∞0xn−1(1+x2)ndx, n∈N, I would like to solve it in the following way:
∫∞0xn−1(1+x2)ndxx=tant===∫π20(tant)n−1dt.
When n=1 the answer is π2. However, the following equation is valid:
∫π20tantdt=−ln|cost|∣π2t=0 .
Hence, we know taht this integral can not be convergent when n=2. But I have proved that this integral is convergent for n∈N.
Question:
1. Where I went wrong?
2. if it is truly convergent how to compute this integral for n∈N?
Answer
If we put x=tant, then dx=sec2tdt. The bottom becomes sec2nt. So we end up integrating tann−1tsec2n−2t, that is, sinn−1tcosn−1t. One way to continue is to rewrite in terms of sin2t, and use a Reduction Formula. One can also obtain a reduction formula directly for the original function, without travelling through the trigonometric substitution process.
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