How would you show that if ac≡bc \mod m and \gcd(c,m)=d, then a≡b \mod \frac{m}{d}?
Any help would be much appreciated!
Answer
You have marked this under proof writing. So I will attempt a model proof.
So ac \equiv bc \mod m, which means that m | ac-bc, and hence m | c(a-b). Hence, c(a-b)=km for some integer k. Now, Given that \gcd(c,m) =d , it follows that c=xd and m=yd for some co-prime integers x and y. Hence,
c(a-b) = km \implies xd(a-b) = kyd \implies x(a-b) = ky
Note that x | ky from the above. Now, because x is co-prime to y, it follows that x |k and hence \frac{k}{x} is an integer. Now, (a-b) = \frac{k}{x}y
and hence a-b is a multiple of y. Hence a \equiv b \mod y. But y = \frac{m}{d}, hence a \equiv b \mod \dfrac{m}{d}.
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