Is the following Proof Correct?
Theorem. Given that V is finite dimensional and ϕ1,ϕ2,...,ϕn is a basis for V′=L(V,F) i.e. the dual of V. Show that there exists a basis of V whose dual basis is ϕ1,ϕ2,...,ϕn.
Proof. Let In={i∈Z+|i≤n}. Since ϕ1,ϕ2,...,ϕn is a basis for V′ we can affirm that ∀j∈In ϕj is not the zero linear functional consequently there exist a list of vectors v1,v2,...,vn such that ∀j∈In(ϕj(vj)≠0).
Since dimV=dimV′ in order to show that v1,v2,...,vn is a basis it is sufficient for us to show that v1,v2,...,vn is linearly independent.
Assume that for some c1,c2,...,cn∈F c1v1+c2v2+⋅⋅⋅+cnvn=0
and that i∈In, applying ϕi to (1) yields the equation 0=ciϕ(vi) since ϕi(vi)≠0 it follows that ci=0 and since our choice of i was arbitrary it follows that c1=c2=...=cn=0 .
Answer
No, the proof is not correct.
It is not enough that ϕi(vi)=1; you also need information about ϕi(vj) when i≠j.
In your computation for linear independence you assumed that ϕi(vj)=0 when i≠j, but this does not follow from your choice of vis.
If you can find a basis w1,…,wn of V so that ϕi(wj)=δij, then your proof works, but you need to elaborate on why such a basis exists.
For example, if wis are such a good basis, in your proof nothing prevents you from choosing
v1=v2=⋯=vn=w1+w2+⋯+wn.
Now all the vis are equal but ϕi(vi)=1.
The problem is that ϕi(vj)=1 for all i,j∈In, and no terms vanish in the sum.
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