So I'm trying to prove that the set of integers has the same cardinality as the set of naturals just using the definition, that is, I'm trying to find a bijective function between the two sets. I found this Why do the rationals, integers and naturals all have the same cardinality? but I couldn't quite find the answer.
Thanks for any help.
Answer
HINT(ish):
Let f:Z→N be the bijection in question, f(0)=0, and for any natural number n, let f(n)=2n. Can you complete the construction for what the negative integers are mapped to?
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