Tuesday, 29 August 2017

integration - How to show that int10sinpit left(zeta(frac12,fract2)zeta(frac12,fract+12)right)dt=1?



I've been trying to prove Fresnel integrals by real methods and encountered an interesting problem.



Let's start with the known result:



0siny2dy=π8




Can we prove it without complex methods?



I have tried to do the following:



0siny2dy=120sinxdxx=12n=0(1)nπ0sinxdxx+πn



This directly follows from the properties of the sine, except the series only converges conditionally, not absolutely, so there's a question of if we can bring it inside the integral.



I will do it without proper justification for now, but if anyone has a comment on this, I would appreciate it.




So we obtain, after a simple change of variables:



0siny2dy=π210sinπt dtn=0(1)nn+t



Wolfram gives for this series:



n=0(1)nn+t=12(ζ(12,t2)ζ(12,t+12))



Which is easy enough to show using the definition of Hurwitz zeta function.




Surprisingly enough, this brings us exactly the known value of the Fresnel integral as a coefficient:



0siny2dy=π810sinπt (ζ(12,t2)ζ(12,t+12))dt



Which means that we need to prove the identity in the title of the question:




10sinπt (ζ(12,t2)ζ(12,t+12))dt=1




Can we prove this by real methods, not using the Fresnel integral?




Mathematica confirms this identity numerically.


Answer



I usually don't answer my own questions, but I literally just derived the solution and I think it's beautiful.



So we know from the link in the OP that:



ζ(s,a)=1Γ(s)0zs1dzeaz(1ez)




Which makes our expression:



ζ(12,t2)ζ(12,t+12)=1π0etz/2(1ez/2)dz(1ez)z=



=2π0etu2/2(1eu2/2)du1eu2



Now we can see that it's very easy to take integral over t (integration by parts):



10sinπt etu2/2dt=4π4π2+u4(1+eu2/2)




Now we substitute this into the second integral to get (this is the beautiful part):



8π0(1+eu2/2)(1eu2/2)du(1eu2)(4π2+u4)=8π0du4π2+u4



After a change of variables we have:



22π0dv1+v4=22ππ22=1



Just as it was supposed to be.




God, Mathematics is simply perfect sometimes.






Appendix



Trying to prove in a simple way that the integral formula for ζ(1/2,a) equals the series definition.



0z1/2dzeaz(1ez)=20eau2du1eu2=2n=00e(a+n)u2du=




=2n=01a+n0ew2dw=πn=01a+n



Formally, this exactly fits the series definition, but it doesn't converge (it's alright, as the function for s=1/2 is defined by analytic continuation).



On the other hand, for the particular function in my case, the proof works well, as the series inside the integral becomes alternating due to a factor (1eu2/2) in the numerator, so everyting converges.



I would say that all of this constitutes a nice real proof of the Fresnel integrals, especially since the Poisson integral also has a few real proofs.



Though I'm definitely not claiming this is a new result. It was new for me, but a two second google search found me this paper https://www.jstor.org/stable/2320230, and I'm sure there's plenty more.



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