I've been trying to prove Fresnel integrals by real methods and encountered an interesting problem.
Let's start with the known result:
∫∞0siny2dy=√π8
Can we prove it without complex methods?
I have tried to do the following:
∫∞0siny2dy=12∫∞0sinxdx√x=12∞∑n=0(−1)n∫π0sinxdx√x+πn
This directly follows from the properties of the sine, except the series only converges conditionally, not absolutely, so there's a question of if we can bring it inside the integral.
I will do it without proper justification for now, but if anyone has a comment on this, I would appreciate it.
So we obtain, after a simple change of variables:
∫∞0siny2dy=√π2∫10sinπt dt∞∑n=0(−1)n√n+t
Wolfram gives for this series:
∞∑n=0(−1)n√n+t=1√2(ζ(12,t2)−ζ(12,t+12))
Which is easy enough to show using the definition of Hurwitz zeta function.
Surprisingly enough, this brings us exactly the known value of the Fresnel integral as a coefficient:
∫∞0siny2dy=√π8∫10sinπt (ζ(12,t2)−ζ(12,t+12))dt
Which means that we need to prove the identity in the title of the question:
∫10sinπt (ζ(12,t2)−ζ(12,t+12))dt=1
Can we prove this by real methods, not using the Fresnel integral?
Mathematica confirms this identity numerically.
Answer
I usually don't answer my own questions, but I literally just derived the solution and I think it's beautiful.
So we know from the link in the OP that:
ζ(s,a)=1Γ(s)∫∞0zs−1dzeaz(1−e−z)
Which makes our expression:
ζ(12,t2)−ζ(12,t+12)=1√π∫∞0e−tz/2(1−e−z/2)dz(1−e−z)√z=
=2√π∫∞0e−tu2/2(1−e−u2/2)du1−e−u2
Now we can see that it's very easy to take integral over t (integration by parts):
∫10sinπt e−tu2/2dt=4π4π2+u4(1+e−u2/2)
Now we substitute this into the second integral to get (this is the beautiful part):
8√π∫∞0(1+e−u2/2)(1−e−u2/2)du(1−e−u2)(4π2+u4)=8√π∫∞0du4π2+u4
After a change of variables we have:
2√2π∫∞0dv1+v4=2√2ππ2√2=1
Just as it was supposed to be.
God, Mathematics is simply perfect sometimes.
Appendix
Trying to prove in a simple way that the integral formula for ζ(1/2,a) equals the series definition.
∫∞0z−1/2dzeaz(1−e−z)=2∫∞0e−au2du1−e−u2=2∞∑n=0∫∞0e−(a+n)u2du=
=2∞∑n=01√a+n∫∞0e−w2dw=√π∞∑n=01√a+n
Formally, this exactly fits the series definition, but it doesn't converge (it's alright, as the function for s=1/2 is defined by analytic continuation).
On the other hand, for the particular function in my case, the proof works well, as the series inside the integral becomes alternating due to a factor (1−e−u2/2) in the numerator, so everyting converges.
I would say that all of this constitutes a nice real proof of the Fresnel integrals, especially since the Poisson integral also has a few real proofs.
Though I'm definitely not claiming this is a new result. It was new for me, but a two second google search found me this paper https://www.jstor.org/stable/2320230, and I'm sure there's plenty more.
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