Show that $\forall\varepsilon>0,$
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\#\{\text{positive divisors of n}\}}{n^\varepsilon}=0$$
I'm trying to solve this problem for a long time, but I'm really stuck I have totally no idea where to start.
I tried replacing $\varepsilon$ by $\frac{1}{k}$ where $k$ is a natural number, and show the statement is true for all $k$ by induction, but I haven't succeeded and it doesn't seem promising.
If you give me any advice or comment, I would greatly appreciate.
Thank you.
Answer
The solution for this problem falls out from the following fact.
\begin{equation}
e^{O(\frac{log(n)}{loglog(n)})}=d(n)
\end{equation}
So,
\begin{equation}
\lim_{n->\infty}\frac{d(n)}{n^\epsilon}=\frac{e^{\frac{Clog(n)}{loglog(n)}}}{n^\epsilon}
\end{equation}
For some constant C.
Therefore,
\begin{equation}
\lim_{n->\infty}\frac{e^{\frac{Clog(n)}{loglog(n)}}}{n^\epsilon}=\lim_{n->\infty}\frac{n^\frac{C}{loglog(n)}}{n^\epsilon}=\lim_{n->\infty}n^{\frac{C}{loglog(n)}-\epsilon}
\end{equation}
You can add a nice proof regarding epsilon and deltas to show from here that
\begin{equation}
\lim_{n->\infty}\frac{C}{loglog(n)}-\epsilon=-\epsilon\\and\\
\lim_{n->\infty}n^{-\epsilon}=0\\
implies\\
\lim_{n->\infty}n^{\frac{C}{loglog(n)}-\epsilon}=0
\end{equation}
This completes our proof. Many websites have the first point written and I believe you may be able to find out more about it from other posts.
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