Can someone provide a proof that for any given irrational number, b, exponentiation by that number defined as a limit of rational powers always converges, and that if we choose a particular base, a, that the no two b's yield the same limit. (I suppose in the case where a is not 0 or 1?)
Answer
We can restrict to the case a>1 (noting that $0Note that pq<rs implies $ps
Now for the convergence: For rational exponents, the usual power laws hold, and as we have just seen order is also respected (for bases a>1). Hence whenever |pq−rs|<1N, we have $$\left|a^{\frac pq}-a^{\frac rs}\right|=a^{\frac rs}\cdot \left|a^{\frac pq-\frac rs}-1\right|
We may assume wlog that rs<⌈b⌉+1=:M so that $$\left|a^{\frac pq}-a^{\frac rs}\right|As N√a→1 and N√1/a→1, we conclude that any sequence {pkqk}k∈N of fractions converging to b produces a Cauchy sequence {apkqk}k∈N.
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