Suppose we have a set of primes p1,…,pt. Prove that logp1,…,logpt is linear independent over Q. Now, this implies ∑tj=1xjlog(pj)=0⟺x1=⋯=xt=0.
I think I have to use that fact that every q∈Q can be written as ∏P, where np is a unique sequence (n2,n3,…) with domain Z. Here, P denotes the set of all integers.
Now how can I use this to prove the linear independency?
Answer
If ∑tj=1xjlog(pj)=0
then
∑tj=1yjlog(pj)=0 where yj∈Z is the product of xj by the common denominator of the xj's.
Therefore log(∏tj=1pyjj)=0,
which implies ∏tj=1pyjj=1, and this is only possible if yj=0 for all j. Indeed, you have
∏1≤j≤tyj≥0pyjj=∏1≤i≤tyi<0p−yii
and uniqueness of prime powers decomposition implies yj=0 for all j.
The converse is easy to see: if xj=0 for all j, then ∑tj=1xjlog(pj)=0.
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