Following this question and discussion recently
Is the derivative of a function bigger or equal to ex will always be bigger or equal to the function ?!
I decided to look at the different forms that a function which is always less than its derivative takes, so instead of looking at when f′(x)f(x)≥1. I restated the question to this.
Let g(x) be a function such that g(x)≥1 ∀x then solving the following the inequality will give us the functions we need.
f′(x)f(x)=g(x)
Solving that differential equation you get that f(x) takes on the form (where k is a constant and g(x)≥1 ∀x)
f(x)=ke∫g(x)dx
My question is do all functions that have derivatives greater than the function itself have this form or am i missing something?
Answer
We are looking for a simple criterion for a positive function f, which is equivalent to the differential inequality f′(x)≥f(x) for all x. One can say the following:
A differentiable function f:R→R>0 satisfies f′(x)≥f(x) for all x iff the function g(x):=f(x)ex
is increasing.
Proof. One has g′(x)=(f′(x)−f(x))e−x, and this is ≥0 for all x iff f′(x)≥f(x) for all x.
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