Let's assume that $12 = (\frac{p}{q})$, where p,q $\in$ $\mathbb{R}$ and $p$ and $q$ are coprime.
Then we have,
$(\frac{p^2}{q^2})= 12^2 = 144.$
So,
$p^2 = 144*q^2$
and $p^2 = 2*(72)*q^2.$
This implies that p is even.
Then,
$p=(2k)$
So,
$(2k)^2=2*(72)*q^2$
$4k^2 = 2*(72)*q^2$
$2k^2 = 72q^2$
Thus,
$k^2 = 36q^2$
so,
$k=6q$
then $(\frac{p}{q}) = (\frac{12q}{q})$,
which contradicts p and q being coprime. Therefore 12 is irrational. QED
I was wondering if the proof I've provided is sound.
Answer
Assume otherwise. then there exists $p,q\in \Bbb N$ such that $mcd\{p,q\}=1$ and $\frac{p}{q}=\sqrt{12}.$ From here $\frac{p^2}{q^2}=12$ which is equivalent to $p^2=12q^2=3(2q)^2.$ From here we deduce that $3|p,$ so $p=3k$ for some natural number $k.$ The equation is now $9k^2=3(2q)^2,$ or after simplify, $3k^2=(2q)^2.$ Now we deduce that $3|2q,$ and hence $3|q.$ But this is a contradiction because $3|p,$ so that $mcd\{p,q\}\geq 3>1.$ Hence $\sqrt{12}$ is irrational.
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