Let's assume that 12=(pq), where p,q ∈ R and p and q are coprime.
Then we have,
(p2q2)=122=144.
So,
p2=144∗q2
and p2=2∗(72)∗q2.
This implies that p is even.
Then,
p=(2k)
So,
(2k)2=2∗(72)∗q2
4k2=2∗(72)∗q2
2k2=72q2
Thus,
k2=36q2
so,
k=6q
then (pq)=(12qq),
which contradicts p and q being coprime. Therefore 12 is irrational. QED
I was wondering if the proof I've provided is sound.
Answer
Assume otherwise. then there exists p,q∈N such that mcd{p,q}=1 and pq=√12. From here p2q2=12 which is equivalent to p2=12q2=3(2q)2. From here we deduce that 3|p, so p=3k for some natural number k. The equation is now 9k2=3(2q)2, or after simplify, 3k2=(2q)2. Now we deduce that 3|2q, and hence 3|q. But this is a contradiction because 3|p, so that mcd{p,q}≥3>1. Hence √12 is irrational.
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