I am to prove that there is no homeomorphism between $(a,b)$ and $[a,b)$
It is defined that function is bijective, continuous, and inverse continuous.
How can I derive a contradiction assuming that there exists a homeomorphism between two sets?
One approach that I take is if f is continuous map $[a,b)$ to $(a,b)$, then $f^{-1}((a,b))$ must be open set, but $[a,b)$ is not open.
I think this way is more of like set theory rather than using definition of continuity and I doubt this completes proof or not.
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