How does one construct a bijection from (0,1) to the irrationals in (0,1)?
Or if I am getting my notation right, can you provide an explicit function f:(0,1)→(0,1)∖Q such that f is a bijection?
Answer
(1) Choose an infinite countable set of irrational numbers in (0,1), call them (rn)n⩾.
(2) Enumerate the rational numbers in (0,1) as (q_n)_{n\geqslant0}.
(3) Define f by f(q_n)=r_{2n+1} for every n\geqslant0, f(r_n)=r_{2n} for every n\geqslant0, and f(x)=x for every irrational number x which does not appear in the sequence (r_n)_{n\geqslant0}.
Let me suggest you take it from here and show that f is a bijection between (0,1) and (0,1)\setminus\mathbb Q.
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