Wednesday, 3 July 2019

induction - Prove that log(x)0, xinmathbbN.



I'm trying to prove log(x)<x for x>0 by induction.



Base case: x=1



log(1)<1 ---> 0<1 which is certainly true.



Inductive hypothesis: Assume x=k ---> log(k)<k for k>0




Inductive conclusion: Prove log(k+1)<k+1



I don't know what to do after this. I mean the statement itself is quite obviously true, but how do I continue with the proof?


Answer



I don't know why you'd use induction, (unless your domain of each function is N{0}). Here is an alternative approach using calculus. If this is not helpful, I can delete this answer.

Let g(x)=xlog(x).



g(x)=11x>0

for all x>1. So g(x) is increasing on (1,).

At x=1, g(x)=1, thus xlog(x)>0 for all x1 (use continuity and the known value at x=1 with what has just been shown about the monotony of g).

Now for x(0,1), log(x)<0 and x>0 thus xlog(x)>0.

Thus xlog(x)>0 for all x(0,). And conclude x>log(x) for all x(0,).

Added

If you want to use induction to show that for each xN{0}, x>log(x), use your inductive hypothesis via:
k>log(k)k+log(1+1k)>log(k)+log(1+1k)=log(k+1)k+log(1+1k)k+log(2) and log(2)<1 so k+log(2)<k+1 thus k+1>k+log(2)k+log(1+1k)>log(k+1)


Q.E.D.


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