Let fn:(0,1)→R:x↦1nx+1
Does (fn)n≥0 converge pointwise? Uniformly?
My attempt:
Let x∈(0,1). Then limn→∞fn=0. Hence, ∀x∈(0,1):fn(x)→0 and we deduce that (fn) converges pointswise to 0:(0,1)→R:x↦0
Now, since supx∈(0,1)|1nx+1−0|=1→1≠0
it follows that (fn) does not converge uniformly.
Questions:
(1) Is this correct?
(2) Are there alternatives to show that it is not uniform convergent?
Answer
Yes, it is correct. I think that that way of proving that the convergence is not uniform is the simplest one. However, I would have added an explanation for the equalitysupx∈(0,1)|1nx+1|=1.
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