If {an}, n≥1, is increasing and bounded above, then so is {bn}, n≥1, where bn=a1+a2+...+ann.
So far, I understand that for a sequence to be increasing, bn+1≥bn, but every time I try to algebraically manipulate this statement, I can't seem to prove that to be the case.
An attempt:
a1+a2+...+an+an+1n+1≥a1+a2+...+ann
na1+a2+...+an∗a1+a2+...+an+an+1n+1≥1
nn+1+n(an+1)(n+1)(a1+a2+...+an)≥n+1n+1
n(an+1)(n+1)(a1+a2+...+an)≥1n+1
an+1≥a1+a2+...+ann
As for proving an upper bound exists, I am pretty stumped on how I could prove that for this situation.
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