I was wondering if $AB=E$ ($E$ is identity) is enough to claim $A^{-1} = B$ or if we also need $BA=E$. All my textbooks define the inverse $B$ of $A$ such that $AB=BA=E$. But I can't see why $AB=E$ isn't enough. I can't come up with an example for which $AB = E$ holds but $BA\ne E$.
I tried some stuff but I can only proof that $BA = (BA)^2$.
Edit: For $A,B \in \mathbb{R}^{n \times n}$ and $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
Answer
If $AB = E$, then (the linear application associated to) $A$ has a right inverse, so it's surjective, and as the dimension is finite, surjectivity and injectivity are equivalent, so $A$ is bijective, and has an inverse. And the inverse is also a right inverse, so it's $B$
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