mathematical physics - A question to clarify the use of divergent series in calculating the casimir effect

I asked this question already on both Physics SE and quora, but I did not get an answer on either of these Q&A venues. I know this is strictly speaking not a mathematics question, but could the moderators over here please not close it due to that reason? I would really appreciate some insight in this question.

Some time ago I posted a related question on physics stackexchange. I would like to ask some questions regarding the way the energy per unit area between metallic plates is calculated. The full calculation is on wikipedia.

At some point in the calculation on the relevant wikipedia page (see the link above), we have the equation: $$\frac{ \langle E \rangle }{ A} = - \frac{ \hbar c \pi^2 }{6a^3}\cdot\zeta(-3) . $$

In the next step, it is written rather casually that $\zeta(-3) = - \frac{1}{120} \qquad (*) $. This is true when considering the analytic continuation of the riemann zeta function or the Ramanujan Summation method.

Therefore, it is concluded, that $$\frac{ \langle E \rangle }{A} = - \frac{ \hbar c \pi^2}{720 a^3} . $$
I am wondering under which circumstances people decided to assume the $(*)$-marked equation is 'true'. I can think of a couple of scenarios:

1. The formula for $\frac{ \langle E \rangle }{A} $ was already derived by means of another method which did not require the use of (regularised) divergent sums. Therefore, physicists could infer that $\zeta(-3)$ had to be equal to $ - \frac{1}{120} $, making the derivation of the formula by means of this method, which does use divergent series, correct.


2. The exact formula for $\frac{ \langle E \rangle }{A} $ was not already known. Physicist did have some data points that roughly showed them how the formula should look. Therefore, they tried some different constants for $\zeta(-3)$. At some point they guessed $\zeta(-3) = - \frac{1}{120} $, which yielded a formula that coincided with the known data points. They might have already known that $\zeta(-3) = - \frac{1}{120} $ by means of zeta function regularisation, making it easier to use this equation as a "guess" to find a suitable formula for $\frac{ \langle E \rangle }{A} $ .



3. Some other scenario.

Which scenario roughly describes how the formula for $\frac{ \langle E \rangle }{A} $ came into existence? If it was scenario 1, which other method did physicists formerly employ to derive the formula? If it was scenario 3, how did this whole process unfold?

Thanks a lot,

Max