Monday, 22 December 2014

calculus - Nature of infinite series

I was doing some exercises on the nature of infinite series when I came across this one intriguing series - i=1(1)i1ln(i+1). I tried to solve it with D'Alembert's ratio test and came at the solution that this series is convergent as lim comes out to be \lim\limits_{n \to \infty}|\frac{-\ln(n+1)}{\ln(n+2)}| = \lim\limits_{n \to \infty}\frac{\ln(n+1)}{\ln(n+2)} which is smaller than 1 as \ln x is strictly increasing. So, the - sign doesn't really make any difference. But the answer in the textbook is that this series is conditionally convergent, meaning that it wouldn't have been convergent if not for the - sign. Can anyone explain this to me?

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