Saturday, 27 December 2014

real analysis - Does a function have to be bounded to be uniformly continuous?

My book defines uniform continuity as a form of continuity that works for any points a and x in an interval I such that



|xa|<δ

implies that f(x)f(a)<ϵ



It then goes on to assert that "If f is continuous over a closed and bounded interval [a,b], it is uniformly continuous on said interval."



My question is this: Does f have to be bounded to be uniformly continuous? If not, can someone give me an example and show me why this is the case? This is a concept that I've only been shown with bounded examples in class (and we don't have class until after Thanksgiving).




I saw there exists a question here like this, but I didn't feel the answer was rigorous enough for me to understand fully.

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