Let A,B∈M2(R) be such that A2+B2+2AB=0 and detA=detB. Our goal is to compute det(A2−B2). According to the chain of comments on Art of Problem Solving, the following statements are true:
- det(A2+B2)+det(A2−B2)=2(detA2+detB2). (Is this well known?)
- (1) ⟹det(A2−B2)=0.
- If A,B∈M2(C) satisfy A2+B2+2AB=0, then AB=BA.
- (A+B)2=0⟹det(A2−B2)=0.
Can someone help me with justifying these statements?
Edit:
Doug M provided an explanation for (1) in the answers. Here is an explanation for (2):
A2+B2+2AB=O2⟹A2+B2=−2AB. So det(A2+B2)=4det(AB). Now using (1), det(A2−B2)=2(det(A2)−2det(AB)+det(B2))=2((det(A)2−det(B)2)=0.
Answer
Of course, the OP did not understand much about the proposed exercise. In particular, in M2(C), A2+B2+2AB=0 implies det(A)=det(B).
In fact, the interesting result is
Proposition. Let A,B∈M2(C) be such that (1) A2+B2+2AB=0; then AB=BA. Note that the result works only in dimension 2.
Proof. If H=A+B, then H2=HA−AH and trace(H2)=0. Moreover H3=H2A−HAH=HAH−AH2 implies that trace(H3)=0. We deduce that the eigenvalues of H are 0, H is nilpotent, H2=0, AH=HA, AB=BA. ◻
Remark. According to Proposition, (1) implies that (A+B)2=0, det(A+B)=0, det(A2−B2)=0; moreover AB=BA implies that A,B are simultaneously triangularizable; since A+B is nilpotent, we may assume that A=(ac0b),B=(−ad0−b) and, consequently, det(A)=det(B).
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