Sunday, 8 February 2015

real analysis - The set of functions which map convergent series to convergent series



Suppose f is some real function with the above property, i.e.



if n=0xn converges, then n=0f(xn) also converges.



My question is: can anything interesting be said regarding the behavior of such a function close to 0, other than the fact that f(0)=0?


Answer



I'm quite late on this one, but I think the result is nice enough to be included here.




Definition A function f:RR is said to be convergence-preserving (hereafter CP) if f(an) converges for every convergent series an.



Theorem (Wildenberg): The CP functions are exactly the ones which are linear on some neighbourhood of 0.



Proof (Smith): Clearly, whether f is CP only depends on the restriction of f on an arbitrary small neighbourhood of 0. Since the linear functions are CP, the condition is clearly sufficient. Let's prove that it is also necessary.



We will prove two preliminary results.



Lemma 1: f CP f continuous at 0.




Proof: Let's suppose that f isn't continuous at 0. This implies that there exists a sequence ϵn0 and a positive real η>0 such that n,|f(ϵn)|η. But it is easy to extract a subsequence ϵϕ(n) such that ϵϕ(n) converges (take ϕ such that ϵϕ(n)2n, for instance). For such a subsequence, we still have that |f(ϵϕ(n))|η. This prevents f(ϵϕ(n)) to converge and, thus, f to be CP, a contradiction.



Lemma 2: The function (x,y)f(x+y)+f(x)+f(y) vanishes on some neighbourhood of 0.



Proof: If it didn't, one would be able to find sequences xn0 and yn0 s.t. n,f(xn+yn)+f(xn)+f(yn)0. Up to some extraction, we can assume that δn=f(xn+yn)+f(xn)+f(yn) always has the same sign (let's say δn>0, for the sake of simplicity.)



Consider now the series (x0+y0)+(x0)+(y0)++(x0+y0)+(x0)+(y0)+(x1+y1)+(x1)+(y1)++(x1+y1)+(x1)+(y1)++(xn+yn)+(xn)+(yn)++(xn+yn)+(xn)+(yn)+,
where every triplet of termes (xi+yi)+(xi)+(yi) is repeated Mi>0 times, for some integer Mi>0.



Because xn0 and yn0 and the three terms xi+yi,xi,yi add to 0, it is easy to see that this series is convergent, regardless of the choice of the Mi's.



On the other hand, if we choose Miδ1i, the image of our series by f is f(x0+y0)+f(x0)+f(y0)++f(x0+y0)+f(x0)+f(y0)+f(x1+y1)+f(x1)+f(y1)++f(x1+y1)+f(x1)+f(y1)++f(xn+yn)+f(xn)+f(yn)++f(xn+yn)+f(xn)+f(yn)+,
which diverges, for every line adds to Miδi>1. Again, this in direct contradiction with the CPness of f.



If we apply the result of lemma 2 with y=0, we get that f(x)=f(x). So we can rewrite lemma 2 in the following way:
η>0:x,y(η,η),f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y).



This property and the continuity at 0 imply first the continuity on the whole of (η,η) and it is then not hard to adapt the classical proof to show that f is linear on (η,η). Q.E.D.


No comments:

Post a Comment

real analysis - How to find limhrightarrow0fracsin(ha)h

How to find lim without lhopital rule? I know when I use lhopital I easy get $$ \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}...