From what I have read and this MSE question, the formal Laurent series $\in \Bbb{K}(\!(x)\!)$ can be thought of as (semi-)infinite sequences written in the form:
$$\sum^\infty_{n=d|d\ne-\infty}a_nx^n\quad \text{where}\quad a_n \in\Bbb{K}$$
with the following designation of notation:
\[\begin{aligned}(a,0,0,0...)\quad& \text{denoted by}& a=ax^0\\
(0,a,0,0...)\quad& \text{denoted by}& ax=ax^1\\
(0,0,a,0...)\quad &\text{denoted by}& ax^2 \end{aligned}\]
I will denote this type of Laurent series FLS (formal Laurent series).
In complex analysis however the Laurent series of a function $f(z)$ is given by:
$$f(z)=\sum_{k=-\infty}^\infty a_k(z-a)^k$$
where:
$$a_k=\frac{1}{2\pi i} \oint_\gamma \frac{f(z)}{(z-a)^{k+1}}dz$$
This is defined on an annulus about $a$ in which $f(z)$ is analytic.
I will denote this type of Laurent series CLS (complex Laurent series).
As we can see there are some difference between these the FLS and CLS:
- The FLS lives in the space of (semi-)infinite sequences whilst the CLS lives in the space of functions $f:\Bbb{C}\rightarrow \Bbb{C}$.
- The FLS is not permitted to have an infinite lower bound whilst the CLS does.
- For CLS we can come we can come up with a property of convergence whilst for the FLS we can't.
My Question: How are the FLS and CLS linked, in such away that reconciles there differences? i.e. what is the connection between them.
If you could provide references, if you used them, that would be great.
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