In the question in the link is it compulsory that A+B+C=π ?
Answer
Here in Problem when x=cos(a)+isin(a), y=cos(b)+isin(b), z=cos(c)+isin(c), x+y+z=0,
we have proved that ∑cosA=∑sinA=0 (1) (1)⟹∑cos2A=∑sin2A=0 (2)
Now from (1),cosA+cosB=−cosC and sinA+sinB=−sinC
Squaring & adding we get, cos(A−B)=−12 (3)
Similarly, cos(B−C)=−12 (4),cos(C−A)=−12 (5)
(3)⟹A−B=2mπ±2π3 where m is any integer
(4)⟹B−C=2nπ±2π3 where n is any integer
If we take the opposite signs, A−C=A−B+B−C=2π(m−n)
⟹cos(C−A)=cos(A−C)=cos2π(m−n)=1 which contradicts (5)
So, either A−B=2mπ+2π3,B−C=2nπ+2π3 (6)
Or A−B=2mπ−2π3,B−C=2nπ−2π3 (7)
Observe that both(6),(7) satisfy (5)
So, the angles have to differ by \dfrac{2\pi}3\pmod{2\pi} which is the sufficient condition for (1) which always implies (2)
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