Two companies compete for customers. Customers arrive one at a time, and each buys either Company 1’s product (denoted by “iPhone”) or Company 2’s product (denoted by “Android phone”), but not both. Initially, each company has had 1 sale. Each customer chooses which product to buy with probability proportional to the square of the number of sales, e.g., (if 4 iPhones and 3 Android phones have been sold, then the next customer buys an iPhone with probability 1625 and an Android phone with probability 925).
I'd like to show with probability 1, either there is a customer after whom all future customers buy iPhones, or there is a customer after whom all future customers buy Android phones.
My approach is to let X1,X2,… denote the interarrival times between purchases of iPhones.
We assume that they have distribution modeled by Xj∼1j2Expo. In a similar way we define the Android buying interarrival times to be Y1,Y2,… which are distributed Yi∼1i2Expo. At this point, I'm not sure how to go further, does anyone have any ideas?
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