Monday, 16 May 2016

Proof by Induction (concerning 3nge1+2n)



I've been able to follow the idea and steps of induction so far but I've hit a road block in understanding one of the examples in a text book. This is what the book says p.97:



Prove: 3n1+2n



Skipping past the base case and assuming it's true, the books inductive step is as follows:



Show: 3n+1=1+2(1+n)




LHS =33n
LHS 3(1+2n) [by assumption]
LHS 1+2+2n+4n [algebra]
LHS 1+2(1+n) [since n>0]



How can the 4n be omitted by n>0?
This really boggles me, appreciate any insights and help.



Thanks!


Answer



If n>0 then 4n>0 and omitting it from the RHS reduces the value. So >= still applies - or applies more strongly, and the = could be dropped.


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