Could you please help me to prove the following questions:
Q1) Consider ax≡c(modm) (call it **
), if gcd(a,m)=1 then **
has a unique solution modulo m i.e.
i) **
has a solution x0
ii) Any solution x of **
satisfies x≡x0(modm)
Q2) Consider again **
and suppose gcd(a,m)=d≥1, we know that **
has exactly d incongruent solutions: x0,x1...,xd−1. By reducing them mod m, we can obtain exactly d incongruent solutions: 0≤x0,...,xd−1≤m−1
Thanks in advance,
Amadeus
Answer
For i), there are many proofs. It all depends on what prior machinery you have.
One relatively low-tech way of doing it is to consider the numbers (a)(0),(a)(1),(a)(2),…,(a)(m−1). We will show that these are all incongruent modulo m.
For suppose to the contrary that ai≡aj(modm), with 0≤i<j≤m−1.
Then aj−ai=a(j−i) is divisible by m. But since gcd(a,m)=1, it follows that m divides j−i. This is impossible, since 0<j−i≤m−1.
We conclude that modulo m, the numbers (a)(0),(a)(1),…,(a)(m−1) are congruent, in some order, to 0,1,2,3,…,m−1. It follows that there is exactly one i such that ai≡c(modm).
A way to prove it with more machinery is if we know that whenever gcd(a,m)=1, there is a b such that ab≡1(modm). Then let x=bc. We conclude that ax=a(bc)=(ab)c≡c(modm). For uniqueness, suppose that ax≡ay≡c(modm). Multiply by b. We get b(ax)≡(b(ay)(modm). But since ba≡1(modm), it follows that x≡y(modm).
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