I have the following two equations:
z1=x21(modp)
z2=x22(modq)
and p and q are prime.
and I want to show x2 and z2 are equal mod pq
x2=x21c21+x22c22
z2=z1c21+z2c22
Intuitively, it seems "obvious that they are equal since z1=x21 and z2=x22" but these statements are only true mod p and q respectively. Then how can one claim that they are indeed equal? I guess I was wondering if I was missing some "obvious" property of modular arithmetic or/and quadratic residues?
Also for reference c1 and c1 are Chinese remainder theorem coefficients. i.e.
c1=1(modp)
c1=0(modq)
c2=0(modp)
c2=1(modq)
Context:
I ran into that doubt when trying to prove:
z∈QRpq⟺z∈QRp and z∈QRq
Answer
Your equations imply x2 and z2 are ≡z1(modp), and ≡z2(modq), so x2≡z2(modpq) by CRT. Or, directly p,q∣x2−z2⇒pq∣x2−z2, since p,q coprime ⇒lcm(p,q)=pq.
To be explicit: mod p: x2=x21c12+x22c22≡x21≡z1 by c1≡1, c2≡0.
And, similarly mod p: z2≡z1c12+z2c22≡z1. And similarly mod q.
Remark Essentially it concerns the uniqueness mod pq of the solution X of
X≡x21(modp)X≡x22(modq)
This follows by CRT (the easy direction). One doesn't need to write the explicit solution given by CRT, viz. X=c1x21+c2x22. (Why do use c2i vs. ci?) What is the context of your problem?
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