Prove $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty} \left(\frac {2}{3}\right)^n=0$ with the definition of limit.
From the definition and since $n\in\mathbb N$ I get that ${\Large\mid} \left(\frac {2}{3}\right)^n{\Large\mid}=\left(\frac {2}{3}\right)^n$ but now I'm not sure what to do, I don't see how taking a $\log$ here would help.
I thought of different approach, proving by induction that $\left(\frac {2}{3}\right)^n < \frac 1 n$: The first steps are trivial, then for $n+1$: $\frac {1}{n+1}>\frac {2}{3}\left(\frac {2}{3}\right)^n$, then from the induction hypothesis: $\frac {1}{n+1}>\frac {2}{3}\frac 1 n$ and we get that this true for $n>2$ so we can choose $N_{\epsilon}=\frac 1 {\epsilon}$.
Is there another way that does not involve induction?
Answer
HINT. By limit definition:
$$|a_n-l|<\epsilon$$
i.e.
$$\left|\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^n\right|=\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^n<\epsilon$$
whence
$$-n\ln(3/2)<\ln\epsilon$$
and
$$n>-\frac{\ln\epsilon}{\ln \frac{3}{2}}$$
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