Does a bijective map from (−π/2,π/2)→(0,1) exist?
My first guess was using the sine function but it doesn't really comply with the bijective map since it goes from (−π/2,π/2)→(−1,1). Am I missing something with the sine function or is there another way I can achieve this bijection?
Answer
Consider the function f(x)=xπ+12.
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