Thursday, 10 August 2017

real analysis - Does a bijective map from (pi/2,pi/2)to(0,1) exist?




Does a bijective map from (π/2,π/2)(0,1) exist?





My first guess was using the sine function but it doesn't really comply with the bijective map since it goes from (π/2,π/2)(1,1). Am I missing something with the sine function or is there another way I can achieve this bijection?


Answer



Consider the function f(x)=xπ+12.


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