Edwards1973 gives a sufficient condition for differentiability:
If all partial derivatives of f exist at every point of an open set
containing →a, and the partials are continuous at →a, then
f is differentiable at →a.
I am wondering if the first condition, existence of all partials in an open set containing →a, is needed. Is the second condition alone, continuity of partials at →a, sufficient for differentiability?
Another way to phrase this (but in the opposite sense):
Does there exist a function f satisfying these conditions:
1. f is not differentiable at →a,
2. all of its partial derivatives are continuous at →a, and
3. one or more of the partials are not defined in some parts of any open set containing →a.
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