We say that two field E,F, extending the same base field K, are linearly disjoint if every finite subset of E that is K-linearly independent is also F-linearly independent.
Suppose K=Q. Is this definition equivalent to say that E∩F=Q? And if so, why?
My attempt: Assuming that the extensions E/Q, F/Q are finite, I tried using the primitive element theorem, so that E=Q(α) and F=Q(β), for some α,β algebraic. Then the elements of these fields are just polynomials in these numbers, but from here i was not able to conclude.
Is is even true if the extensions are not finite?
Thanks in advance!
Answer
\newcommand{\Q}{\mathbb{Q}}No, it is not equivalent.
As a possibly typical example, take K = \Q, E = \Q(\omega \alpha), F = \Q(\alpha), where \alpha = \sqrt[3]{2} and \omega is a primitive third root of unity.
We have E \cap F = K, but while 1, \omega \alpha, \omega^{2} \alpha^{2} \in E are independent over K, you have
1 + \frac{\alpha^{2}}{2}( \omega \alpha) + \frac{\alpha}{2} (\omega^{2} \alpha^{2}) = 1 + \omega + \omega^{2} = 0,
so they are not independent over F.
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