Evaluate $$\lim_{x\to0} \frac{\sin(x^2)}{\sin^2(x)}.$$
Using L'Hospital twice, I found this limit to be $1$. However, since the Taylor series expansions of $\sin(x^2)$ and $\sin^2(x)$ tell us that both of these approach $0$ like $x^2$, I'm wondering if we can argue that the limit must be 1 via the Taylor series formal way?
Answer
$$\lim_{x\to0} \frac{\sin(x^2)}{\sin^2(x)}=\lim_{x\to0}\left(\frac{x}{\sin x}\right)^2 \frac{\sin(x^2)}{x^2}=1$$
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