While solving ∫x2+1x4+1dx, I tried to use partial fractions in the denominator by writing x4+1=(x2+i)(x2−i) And then I got ℜ[√2tan−1x√i]. In my book they used another method without complex numbers and they got 1√2tan−1(x2−1x√2). How do I prove my answer is equal to theirs? I tried the realtions between log and atan but I couldnt get rid of the i. Edit: Please note that this question is not about solving the integral (which I already solved to get ℜ[√2tan−1x√i].) but about the simplification of the answer I got using complex partial fractions method to reduce it to the real part only.
Answer
ℜ[√2tan−1x√i]=ℜ[√2tan−1x⋅e−iπ/4]=(√2tan−1x⋅e−iπ/4)+(√2tan−1x⋅eiπ/4)2
=1√2(tan−1x⋅eiπ/4+tan−1x⋅e−iπ/4)=1√2tan−1x⋅eiπ/4+x⋅e−iπ/41−x⋅eiπ/4⋅x⋅e−iπ/4
=1√2tan−12xcosπ41−x2=1√2tan−1√2x1−x2
where line 2→3 is achieved by using that tan(x+y)=tanx+tany1−tanxtany.
The differs from the expression you give by a constant, after further noting that tan−1x+tan−1(1x)=π2 for x>0.
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