How can I find the value of the following sum?
∞∑n=0arctan(1F2n+1)
Fn is the Fibonacci number.(F1=F2=1)
Answer
OK, let us denote by an this complex number: an=(F1+i)(F3+i)…(F2n−1+i). I claim that for every n≥1 we have an=C⋅(1+F2ni), where C is a positive real number (that depends on n).
Let us prove this by induction. For n=1 we have a1=F1+i=1+i=1+F2i.
Now the transition. Suppose we have proved that an=C(1+F2ni), where C is a positive real. Then
an+1=an(F2n+1+i)=C(1+F2ni)(F2n+1+i)=C(F2n+1−F2n+i⋅(F2nF2n+1+1)).
Now, from the equalities on wikipedia it's easy to derive that F2nF2n+1+1=F2n−1F2n+2. Then we have
an+1=CF2n−1(1+F2n+2i).
CF2n−1 is a positive real number, so this completes the proof.
Now we are ready to prove that your infinite sum is equal to π/2. If we look at the partial sum, we easily find that
k∑n=0arctan(1F2n+1)=k∑n=0arg(F2n+1+i)=argak+1=arctan(F2k+2).
As k tends to +∞, F2k+2 also tends to +∞, and its arctan tends to π/2. So the answer is π/2.
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