Hello this indeed a very short question from Algebra that I have no real idea on and figured it is simple but for some reason I cannot seem to find it. I am given A and B complex square matrices for which
A∗A=B∗B−BB∗ where * denotes the complex transpose.
I am required to show A=0 but have no idea how to deduce this the only thing I figured out was that both sides of the equality I am given are Hermitian but cannot proceed. Any help appreciated. Thanks
Answer
The matrix A∗A is Hermitian non-negative, and it is enough to show that its only eigenvalue is 0. By assumption, we have Tr(A∗A)=0. Recall that the trace is the sum of all eigenvalues. Now, if λ>0 is an eigenvalue, it follows that A∗A has negative eigenvalues, which is impossible.
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